So, I've been doing more research on Daniel 8. Many feel the prophecy was fulfilled when Antiochus Epiphanes forced the Jews to stop their way of worship around 167/168 B.C.E. The only refutation I could find was in a 1952 WT:
Quote:
But that Daniel’s prophecy about “the disgusting thing that causes desolation” was not fulfilled in 168 B.C. is apparent, for when Jesus mentioned it two hundred years later its fulfillment was still future.
The problem with this statement is that WT usually views prophecies has having dual-fulfillments. In this case, though, they ignore evidence presented by nearly everyone about what happened in 167/168 B.C.E. where the Jews were forced to stop their sabbaths, their sacrifices (the constant feature), etc.
I am left to wonder why WTBTS applies prophecies in Daniel to our day. True, this prophecy says its fulfllment is for "the time of the end", but it doesn't specify the end of what. In addition, the explanation given to Daniel has to do with the Medes and Persians, th first king of Greece and then Greece being split up into four kingdoms, and then when their power begins to wane, a fierce king stands up and opposes. How do you get from there to over 2000 years into the future? Because of the words "appointed time of the end"? Unless some of the prophecies in Daniel actually do have two fulfillments.
The only think I can come up with is exactly why the WTBTS applies it to today. Matt 24:15:
Therefore, when you catch sight of the disgusting thing that causes desolation, as spoken about by Daniel the prophet, standing in a holy place (let the reader use discernment)
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